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ISACA CISM (Certified Information Security Manager) Exam is a highly respected certification exam for professionals who are interested in advancing their careers in the field of information security management. CISM exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and skills related to the management of information security programs, including risk management, incident management, compliance, and governance. The CISM certification is recognized globally and is highly valued by organizations looking for qualified professionals to manage their information security programs.
NEW QUESTION # 113
What is the MOST important reason for conducting security awareness programs throughout an organization?
- A. Reducing the human risk
- B. Informing business units about the security strategy
- C. Maintaining evidence of training records to ensure compliance
- D. Training personnel in security incident response
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM DEVELOPMENT
Explanation:
People are the weakest link in security implementation, and awareness would reduce this risk. Through security awareness and training programs, individual employees can be informed and sensitized on various security policies and other security topics, thus ensuring compliance from each individual. Laws and regulations also aim to reduce human risk. Informing business units about the security strategy is best done through steering committee meetings or other forums.
NEW QUESTION # 114
The GREATEST benefit of choosing a private cloud over a public cloud would be:
- A. collection of data forensic
- B. online service availability.
- C. server protection.
- D. containment of customer data,
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 115
An organization's information security manager is performing a post-incident review of a security incident in which the following events occurred:
* A bad actor broke into a business-critical FTP server by brute forcing an administrative password
* The third-party service provider hosting the server sent an automated alert message to the help desk, but was ignored
* The bad actor could not access the administrator console, but was exposed to encrypted data transferred to the server
* After three hours, the bad actor deleted the FTP directory, causing incoming FTP attempts by legitimate customers to fail Which of the following could have been prevented by conducting regular incident response testing?
- A. Ignored alert messages
- B. The brute force attack
- C. The server being compromised
- D. Stolen data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Ignored alert messages could have been prevented by conducting regular incident response testing because it would have ensured that the help desk staff are familiar with and trained on how to handle different types of alert messages from different sources, and how to escalate them appropriately. The server being compromised could not have been prevented by conducting regular incident response testing because it is related to security vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the server configuration or authentication mechanisms. The brute force attack could not have been prevented by conducting regular incident response testing because it is related to security threats or attacks from external sources. Stolen data could not have been prevented by conducting regular incident response testing because it is related to security breaches or incidents that may occur despite the incident response plan or process. Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2017/volume-5/incident-response-lessons-learned https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2018/volume-3/incident-response-lessons-learned
NEW QUESTION # 116
To ensure that payroll systems continue on in an event of a hurricane hitting a data center, what would be the FIRS T crucial step an information security manager would take in ensuring business continuity planning?
- A. Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA).
- B. Weighing the cost of implementing the plan vs. financial loss.
- C. Conducting a qualitative and quantitative risk analysis.
- D. Assigning value to the assets.
Answer: A
Explanation:
BIA is an essential component of an organization's business continuity plan; it includes an exploratory component to reveal any vulnerabilities and a planning component to develop strategies for minimizing risk. It is the first crucial step in business continuity planning. Qualitative and quantitative risk analysis will have been completed to define the dangers to individuals, businesses and government agencies posed by potential natural and human-caused adverse events. Assigning value to assets is part of the BIA process. Weighing the cost of implementing the plan vs. financial loss is another part of the BIA.
NEW QUESTION # 117
Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST to address the risk associated with a new third-party cloud application that will not meet organizational security requirements?
- A. Consult with the business owner.
- B. Restrict application network access temporarily.
- C. Include security requirements in the contract.
- D. Update the risk register.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The information security manager should first consult with the business owner to understand the business needs and objectives for using the new cloud application, and to discuss the possible alternatives or compensating controls that can mitigate the risk. Updating the risk register, restricting application network access, or including security requirements in the contract are possible actions to take after consulting with the business owner.
References = CISM Review Manual, 16th Edition eBook1, Chapter 1: Information Security Governance, Section: Risk Management, Subsection: Risk Treatment, Page 49.
NEW QUESTION # 118
The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:
- A. identify control improvements.
- B. identify vulnerabilities
- C. identify the root cause.
- D. re-evaluate the impact of incidents
Answer: C
Explanation:
The primary objective of performing a post-incident review is to identify the root cause of the incident. After an incident has occurred, the post-incident review process involves gathering and analyzing evidence to determine the cause of the incident. This analysis will help to identify both the underlying vulnerability that allowed the incident to occur, as well as any control improvements that should be implemented to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. Additionally, the post-incident review process can also be used to re-evaluate the impact of the incident, as well as any potential implications for the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 119
A risk mitigation report would include recommendations for:
- A. quantification.
- B. acceptance
- C. assessment.
- D. evaluation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Acceptance of a risk is an alternative to be considered in the risk mitigation process. Assessment.
evaluation and risk quantification are components of the risk analysis process that are completed prior to determining risk mitigation solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 120
The PRIMARY purpose for continuous monitoring of security controls is to ensure:
- A. control gaps are minimized.
- B. alignment with compliance requirements.
- C. system availability.
- D. effectiveness of controls.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary purpose for continuous monitoring of security controls is to ensure the effectiveness of controls.
This involves regularly assessing the controls to ensure that they are meeting their intended objectives, and that any potential weaknesses are identified and addressed. Continuous monitoring also helps to ensure that control gaps are minimized, and that systems are available and aligned with compliance requirements.
The primary purpose of continuous monitoring of security controls is to ensure that the controls are operating effectively and providing adequate protection for the information assets. Continuous monitoring can also help to identify control gaps, ensure system availability, and support compliance requirements, but these are secondary benefits12 References = 1: SP 800-137, Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) for Federal Information Systems and Organizations, page 1-12: A Practical Approach to Continuous Control Monitoring, ISACA Journal, Volume 2, 2015, page 1.
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which of the following would BEST enhance firewall security?
- A. Providing dynamic address assignment
- B. Placing the firewall on a screened subnet
- C. Implementing change-control practices
- D. Logging of security events
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 122
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of testing security controls within a critical infrastructure?
- A. Ensuring the continued resilience and security of IT services
- B. Identifying and addressing security team performance issues
- C. Decreasing the percentage of security deployments that cause failures in production
- D. Reducing the number of control assessments to optimize resources
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 123
Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure alignment of the information security program with organizational objectives?
- A. Establish an information security steering committee.
- B. Employ a process-based approach for information asset classification.
- C. Utilize an industry-recognized risk management framework.
- D. Provide security awareness training to board executives.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to help ensure alignment of the information security program with organizational objectives is A.
Establish an information security steering committee. This is because an information security steering committee is a cross-functional group of senior executives and managers who provide strategic direction, oversight, and support for the information security program. An information security steering committee can help to ensure that the information security program is aligned with the organizational objectives by:
Communicating and promoting the vision, mission, and value of information security to the organization and its stakeholders Defining and approving the information security policies, standards, and procedures Establishing and monitoring the information security goals, metrics, and performance indicators Allocating and prioritizing the resources and budget for information security initiatives and projects Resolving any conflicts or issues that may arise between the information security function and the business units Reviewing and endorsing the information security risk assessment and treatment plans Ensuring compliance with the legal, regulatory, and contractual obligations regarding information security An information security steering committee is a cross-functional group of senior executives and managers who provide strategic direction, oversight, and support for the information security program. (From CISM Manual or related resources) References = CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2, page 20; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 9th Edition, Question 9, page 3; Information Security Governance: Guidance for Boards of Directors and Executive Management, 2nd Edition
NEW QUESTION # 124
The MAIN reason for deploying a public key infrastructure (PKI) when implementing an information security program is to:
- A. allow deployment of the active directory.
- B. ensure the confidentiality of sensitive material.
- C. implement secure sockets layer (SSL) encryption.
- D. provide a high assurance of identity.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The primary purpose of a public key infrastructure (PKI) is to provide strong authentication. Confidentiality is a function of the session keys distributed by the PKI. An active directory can use PKI for authentication as well as using other means. Even though secure sockets layer (SSL) encryption requires keys to authenticate, it is not the main reason for deploying PKI.
NEW QUESTION # 125
The PRIMARY purpose of a periodic threat and risk assessment report to senior management is to communicate the:
- A. probability of future incidents.
- B. risk acceptance criteria
- C. status of the security posture.
- D. cost-benefit of security controls,
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 126
For computer forensics evidence to be admissible in a court of law, the evidence MUST:
- A. be stored in the original media.
- B. meet standards of relevance
- C. be identifiable and reproducible
- D. have integrity and accountability
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 127
Data owners are normally responsible for which of the following?
- A. Administering security over database records
- B. Migrating application code changes to production
- C. Determining the level of application security required
- D. Applying emergency changes to application data
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Data owners approve access to data and determine the degree of protection that should be applied (data classification). Administering database security, making emergency changes to data and migrating code to production are infrastructure tasks performed by custodians of the data.
NEW QUESTION # 128
A new version of an information security regulation is published that requires an organization's compliance.
The information security manager should FIRST:
- A. conduct a risk assessment to determine the risk of noncompliance.
- B. perform a gap analysis against the new regulation.
- C. perform an audit based on the new version of the regulation.
- D. conduct benchmarking against similar organizations.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY GOVERNANCE
NEW QUESTION # 129
Which resource is the MOST effective in preventing physical access tailgating/piggybacking?
- A. Biometric scanners
- B. Photo identification
- C. Awareness training
- D. Card key door locks
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Awareness training would most likely result in any attempted tailgating being challenged by the authorized employee. Choices A, B and D are physical controls that, by themselves, would not be effective against tailgating.
NEW QUESTION # 130
An organization's automated security monitoring tool generates an excessively large amount of falsq positives. Which of the following is the BEST method to optimize the monitoring process?
- A. Monitor incidents in a specific time frame.
- B. Change reporting thresholds.
- C. Report only critical alerts.
- D. Reconfigure log recording.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Changing reporting thresholds is the best method to optimize the monitoring process when the automated security monitoring tool generates an excessively large amount of false positives. Changing reporting thresholds means adjusting the criteria or parameters that trigger the alerts, such as the severity level, the frequency, the source, or the destination of the events. Changing reporting thresholds can help to reduce the number of false positives, filter out the irrelevant or benign events, and focus on the most critical and suspicious events that require further investigation or response.
Reference = Cybersecurity tool sprawl leading to burnout, false positives: report, Security tools' effectiveness hampered by false positives
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when defining a recovery strategy in a business continuity plan (BCP)?
- A. Organizational tolerance to service interruption
- B. Legal and regulatory requirements
- C. Geographical location of the backup site
- D. Likelihood of a disaster
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 132
If civil litigation is a goal for an organizational response to a security incident, the PRIMARY step should be to:
- A. contact law enforcement.
- B. document the chain of custody.
- C. capture evidence using standard server-backup utilities.
- D. reboot affected machines in a secure area to search for evidence.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Documenting the chain of custody is the PRIMARY step for an organizational response to a security incident if civil litigation is a goal because it ensures the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence collected from the incident. The chain of custody is the process of documenting the history of the evidence, including its identification, collection, preservation, transportation, analysis, storage, and presentation in court.
The chain of custody should include information such as the date, time, location, description, source, owner, handler, and purpose of each evidence item, as well as any changes, modifications, or transfers that occurred to the evidence. Documenting the chain of custody can help to prevent the evidence from being tampered with, altered, lost, or destroyed, and to demonstrate that the evidence is relevant, reliable, and original12. Contacting law enforcement (A) is not the PRIMARY step for an organizational response to a security incident if civil litigation is a goal, but rather a possible or optional step depending on the nature, severity, and jurisdiction of the incident. Contacting law enforcement may help to obtain legal assistance, guidance, or support, but it may also involve risks such as loss of control, confidentiality, or reputation. Therefore, contacting law enforcement should be done after careful consideration of the legal obligations, contractual agreements, and organizational policies12. Capturing evidence using standard server-backup utilities is not the PRIMARY step for an organizational response to a security incident if civil litigation is a goal, but rather a technical step that should be done after documenting the chain of custody. Capturing evidence using standard server-backup utilities may help to preserve the state of the systems or networks involved in the incident, but it may also introduce changes or errors that could compromise the validity or quality of the evidence. Therefore, capturing evidence using standard server-backup utilities should be done using forensically sound methods and tools, and following the documented chain of custody12. Rebooting affected machines in a secure area to search for evidence (D) is not the PRIMARY step for an organizational response to a security incident if civil litigation is a goal, but rather a technical step that should be done after documenting the chain of custody. Rebooting affected machines in a secure area may help to isolate and analyze the systems or networks involved in the incident, but it may also cause the loss or alteration of the evidence, such as volatile memory, temporary files, or logs. Therefore, rebooting affected machines in a secure area should be done with caution and following the documented chain of custody12. References = 1: CISM Review Manual 15th Edition, page 310-3111; 2:
CISM Domain 4: Information Security Incident Management (ISIM) [2022 update]2
NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following represents a PRIMARY area of interest when conducting a penetration test?
- A. Customer data
- B. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
- C. Network mapping
- D. Data mining
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAM MANAGEMENT
Explanation:
Network mapping is the process of determining the topology of the network one wishes to penetrate. This is one of the first steps toward determining points of attack in a network. Data mining is associated with ad hoc reporting and. together with customer data, they are potential targets after the network is penetrated. The intrusion detection mechanism in place is not an area of focus because one of the objectives is to determine how effectively it protects the network or how easy it is to circumvent.
NEW QUESTION # 134
A post-incident review identified that user error resulted in a major breach. Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the review?
- A. The time and location that the breach occurred
- B. Appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error
- C. The underlying reason for the user error
- D. Evidence of previous incidents caused by the user
Answer: C
Explanation:
The underlying reason for the user error is the most important factor to determine during the post-incident review, as this helps the information security manager to understand the root cause of the breach, and to implement corrective and preventive actions to avoid similar incidents in the future. The underlying reason for the user error may be related to the lack of training, awareness, guidance, or motivation of the user, or to the complexity, usability, or design of the system or process that the user was using. By identifying the underlying reason for the user error, the information security manager can address the human factor of the information security program, and improve the security culture and behavior of the organization. The time and location that the breach occurred, evidence of previous incidents caused by the user, and appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error are not the most important factors to determine during the post-incident review, as they do not provide a comprehensive and holistic understanding of the breach, and may not help to prevent or reduce the likelihood or impact of future incidents. References = CISM Review Manual 2023, page
1671; CISM Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2023, page 382; ISACA CISM - iSecPrep, page 233
NEW QUESTION # 135
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The CISM certification exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and skills in four domains: Information Security Governance, Information Risk Management and Compliance, Information Security Program Development and Management, and Information Security Incident Management. CISM exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions, which must be completed in a four-hour time limit. CISM exam is administered by Prometric, a leading provider of testing and assessment services.
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