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CompTIA CS0-002 exam is an advanced level certification exam that builds on the foundational knowledge of cybersecurity. CS0-002 exam is designed to test the candidate on their technical skills and their ability to analyze and respond to threats in real-time. CS0-002 exam covers a wide range of topics, including threat and vulnerability management, cyber incident response, security architecture and tools, and security operations and monitoring.
CompTIA CS0-002, also known as the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam, is a globally recognized certification that validates the skills required to perform intermediate-level cybersecurity analysis. CS0-002 exam is designed to assess the candidate's knowledge and ability to identify and respond to security threats and vulnerabilities. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is ideal for individuals who wish to pursue a career in cybersecurity or advance their skills in this field.
NEW QUESTION # 142
A company's Chief Information Officer wants to use a CASB solution to ensure policies are being met during cloud access. Due to the nature of the company's business and risk appetite, the management team elected to not store financial information in the cloud. A security analyst needs to recommend a solution to mitigate the threat of financial data leakage into the cloud. Which of the following should the analyst recommend?
- A. Utilize the CASB to enforce DLP data-at-rest protection for financial information that is stored on premises.
- B. Do not utilize the CASB solution for this purpose, but add DLP on premises for data in motion.
- C. Do not utilize the CASB solution for this purpose, but add DLP on premises for data at rest.
- D. Utilize the CASB to enforce DLP data-in-motion protection for financial information moving to the cloud.
Answer: D
Explanation:
"CASB solutions generally offer their own DLP policy engine, allowing you to configure DLP policies in a CASB and apply them to cloud services." https://www.mcafee.com/blogs/enterprise/cloud-security/how-a-casb-integrates-with-an-on-premises-dlp-solution/
NEW QUESTION # 143
You are a penetration tester who is reviewing the system hardening guidelines for a company. Hardening guidelines indicate the following.
There must be one primary server or service per device.
Only default port should be used
Non- secure protocols should be disabled.
The corporate internet presence should be placed in a protected subnet
Instructions :
Using the available tools, discover devices on the corporate network and the services running on these devices.
You must determine
ip address of each device
The primary server or service each device
The protocols that should be disabled based on the hardening guidelines
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 144
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has decided that all accounts with elevated privileges must use a longer, more complicated passphrase instead of a password. The CISO would like to formally document management's intent to set this control level. Which of the following is the appropriate means to achieve this?
- A. A control
- B. A standard
- C. A policy
- D. A guideline
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 145
An organization has a strict policy that if elevated permissions are needed, users should always run commands under their own account, with temporary administrator privileges if necessary. A security analyst is reviewing syslog entries and sees the following:
Which of the following entries should cause the analyst the MOST concern?
- A. <100> 2020-01-10T19:33:48.002z webserver sudo 201 32001 = BOM ' su vi syslog.conf failed for jos
- B. <100>2 2020-01-10T20:36:36.0010z financeserver su 201 32001 = BOM ' sudo vi users.txt success
- C. <100> 2020-01-10T19:33:48.002z webserver sudo 201 32001 = BOM ' su vi httpd.conf' success
- D. <100>2 2020-01-10T19:33:41.002z webserver su 201 32001 = BOM ' su vi httpd.conf' failed for joe
- E. <100> 2020-01-10T19:34..002z financeserver su 201 32001 = BOM ' su vi success
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 146
An organization wants to mitigate against risks associated with network reconnaissance. ICMP is already blocked at the firewall; however, a penetration testing team has been able to perform reconnaissance against the organization's network and identify active hosts. An analyst sees the following output from a packet capture:
Which of the following phrases from the output provides information on how the testing team is successfully getting around the ICMP firewall rule?
- A. flags=RA indicates the testing team is using a Christmas tree attack
- B. 0 data bytes indicates the testing team is crafting empty ICMP packets
- C. NO FLAGS are set indicates the testing team is using hping
- D. ttl=64 indicates the testing team is setting the time to live below the firewall's threshold
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 147
A security analyst is reviewing the following log from an email security service.
Which of the following BEST describes the reason why the email was blocked?
- A. The To address is invalid.
- B. The From address is invalid.
- C. The IP address and the remote server name are the same.
- D. The IP address was blacklisted.
- E. The email originated from the www.spamfilter.org URL.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 148
A company's marketing emails are either being found in a spam folder or not being delivered at all. The security analyst investigates the issue and discovers the emails in question are being sent on behalf of the company by a third party in1marketingpartners.com Below is the exiting SPP word:
Which of the following updates to the SPF record will work BEST to prevent the emails from being marked as spam or blocked?
A)
B)
C)
D)
- A. Option B
- B. Option A
- C. Option D
- D. Option C
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 149
A company's security team recently discovered a number of workstations that are at the end of life. The workstation vendor informs the team that the product is no longer supported and patches are no longer available The company is not prepared to cease its use of these workstations Which of the following would be the BEST method to protect these workstations from threats?
- A. Deploy whitelisting to the identified workstations to limit the attack surface
- B. Determine the system process cntcalrty and document it
- C. Isolate the workstations and air gap them when it is feasible
- D. Increase security monitoring on the workstations
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 150
A network attack that is exploiting a vulnerability in the SNMP is detected.
Which of the following should the cybersecurity analyst do FIRST?
- A. Temporarily block the attacking IP address.
- B. Escalate the incident to senior management for guidance.
- C. Disable all privileged user accounts on the network.
- D. Apply the required patches to remediate the vulnerability.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://beyondsecurity.com/scan-pentest-network-vulnerabilities-snmp-protocol-version- detection.html
NEW QUESTION # 151
In an effort to be proactive, an analyst has run an assessment against a sample workstation before auditors visit next month. The scan results are as follows:
Based on the output of the scan, which of the following is the BEST answer?
- A. Failed asset inventory
- B. Failed credentialed scan
- C. Failed compliance check
- D. Successful sensitivity level check
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 152
During the security assessment of a new application, a tester attempts to log in to the application but receives the following message incorrect password for given username. Which of the following can the tester recommend to decrease the likelihood that a malicious attacker will receive helpful information?
- A. Avoid using password-based authentication for the application
- B. Disable error messaging for authentication
- C. Set the web page to redirect to an application support page when a bad password is entered.
- D. Recognize that error messaging does not provide confirmation of the correct element of authentication
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 153
Understanding attack vectors and integrating intelligence sources are important components of:
- A. a vulnerability management plan.
- B. an incident response plan.
- C. proactive threat hunting
- D. risk management compliance.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 154
A cybersecurity analyst was asked to review several results of web vulnerability scan logs.
Given the following snippet of code:
Which of the following BEST describes the situation and recommendations to be made?
- A. The security analyst has discovered an embedded iframe that is hidden from users accessing the web page. This code is correct. This is a design preference, and no vulnerabilities are present.
- B. The security analyst has discovered an embedded iframe pointing to source IP 65.240.22.1 network.
The link is hidden and suspicious. Recommend the entry be removed from the web page. - C. The security analyst has discovered an embedded iframe pointing to source IP 65.240.22.1 network.
Recommend making the iframe visible. Fixing the code will correct the issue. - D. The security analyst has discovered an embedded iframe pointing to source IP 65.240.22.1 network.
The code should include the domain name. Recommend the entry be updated with the domain name.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 155
A company offers a hardware security appliance to customers that provides remote administration of a device on the customer's network Customers are not authorized to alter the configuration The company deployed a software process to manage unauthorized changes to the appliance log them, and forward them to a central repository for evaluation Which of the following processes is the company using to ensure the appliance is not altered from its ongmal configured state?
- A. Software assurance
- B. Anti-tamper
- C. CI/CD
- D. Change management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Anti-tamper is a process that protects a system or device from unauthorized changes or modifications. It can also log and report any attempts to alter the system or device. The company is using anti-tamper to ensure the appliance is not altered from its original configured state. CI/CD, software assurance, and change management are not processes that specifically deal with unauthorized changes. Reference: https://www.acq.osd.mil/se/briefs/16943-DoD-AT-Overview-Brief.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 156
An organizational policy requires one person to input accounts payable and another to do accounts receivable. A separate control requires one person to write a check and another person to sign all checks greater than $5,000 and to get an additional signature for checks greater than $10,000. Which of the following controls has the organization implemented?
- A. Segregation of duties
- B. Dual control
- C. Non-repudiaton
- D. Job rotation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Segregation of duties is a security control that requires multiple people to be involved with completing a task. This helps prevent fraud, as it ensures that no one individual has the ability to commit fraud or make mistakes without other people being aware of it
NEW QUESTION # 157
According to a static analysis report for a web application, a dynamic code evaluation script injection vulnerability was found. Which of the following actions is the BEST option to fix the vulnerability in the source code?
- A. Use parameterized queries.
- B. Delete the vulnerable section of the code immediately.
- C. Create a custom rule on the web application firewall.
- D. Validate user input before execution and interpretation.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 158
A security analyst needs to provide the development learn with secure connectivity from the corporate network to a three-tier cloud environment. The developers require access to servers in all three tiers in order to perform various configuration tasks. Which of the following technologies should the analyst implement to provide secure transport?
- A. VPC
- B. VPN
- C. Federation
- D. CASB
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 159
A security analyst inspects the header of an email that is presumed to be malicious and sees the following:
Which of the following is inconsistent with the rest of the header and should be treated as suspicious?
- A. The use of a TLS cipher
- B. The sender's email address
- C. The subject line
- D. The destination email server
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 160
The threat intelligence department recently learned of an advanced persistent threat that is leveraging a new strain of malware, exploiting a system router. The company currently uses the same device mentioned in the threat report. Which of the following configuration changes would BEST improve the organization's security posture?
- A. Implement an IPS rule that contains content for the malware variant and patch the routers to protect against the vulnerability
- B. Implement an IDS rule that contains the IP addresses from the advanced persistent threat and patch the routers to protect against the vulnerability
- C. Implement an IPS rule that contains the IP addresses from the advanced persistent threat and patch the routers to protect against the vulnerability
- D. Implement an IDS rule that contains content for the malware variant and patch the routers to protect against the vulnerability
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 161
Welcome to the Enterprise Help Desk System. Please work the ticket escalated to you in the desk ticket queue.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on me ticket to see the ticket details Additional content is available on tabs within the ticket First, select the appropriate issue from the drop-down menu. Then, select the MOST likely root cause from second drop-down menu If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 162
During a review of recent network traffic, an analyst realizes the team has seen this same traffic multiple times in the past three weeks, and it resulted in confirmed malware activity The analyst also notes there is no other alert in place for this traffic After resolving the security incident, which of the following would be the BEST action for the analyst to take to increase the chance of detecting this traffic in the future?
- A. Note the security incident so other analysts are aware the traffic is malicious
- B. Share details of the security incident with the organization's human resources management team
- C. Report the security incident to a manager for inclusion in the daily report
- D. Communicate the security incident to the threat team for further review and analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
Communicate the security incident to the threat team for further review and analysis. This would allow the threat team to investigate the source and nature of the malicious traffic and create appropriate alerts or signatures to detect it in the future. Sharing details with human resources, noting the incident, or reporting it to a manager would not increase the chance of detection.
NEW QUESTION # 163
During a review of vulnerability scan results an analyst determines the results may be flawed because a control-baseline system which is used to evaluate a scanning tools effectiveness was reported as not vulnerable Consequently, the analyst verifies the scope of the scan included the control-baseline host which was available on the network during the scan. The use of a control-baseline endpoint in this scenario assists the analyst in confirming.
- A. false negatives
- B. the criticality index
- C. hardening validation.
- D. verification of mitigation
- E. false positives
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 164
A security analyst is reviewing the following log entries to identify anomalous activity:
Which of the following attack types is occurring?
- A. SQL injection
- B. Buffer overflow
- C. Cross-site scripting
- D. Directory traversal
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 165
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To prepare for the exam, candidates should have a solid understanding of cybersecurity concepts and hands-on experience in cybersecurity. CompTIA offers various training options, including self-paced eLearning courses, virtual instructor-led training (VILT), and in-person classroom training. Additionally, candidates can use practice exams and study guides to help them prepare for the exam.
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